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Microsoft Role-based AZ-303 exam practice tests

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resource groups shown in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q1

From the Azure portal, you deploy Template1 four times by using the settings shown in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q1-2

What is the result of the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q1-3

Correct Answer: 

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q1-4

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Supscription1 contains the resources in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q2

VNet1 is in RG1. VNet2 is in RG2. There is no connectivity between VNet1 and VNet2.
An administrator named Admin1 creates an Azure virtual machine named VM1 in RG1. VM1 uses a disk named Disk1
and connects to VNet1. Admin1 then installs a custom application in VM1.
You need to move the custom application to VNet2. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q2-2

We cannot just move a virtual machine between networks. What we need to do is identify the disk used by the VM,
delete the VM itself while retaining the disk, and recreate the VM in the target virtual network and then attach the original
disk to it.
Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2014/06/16/step-by-step-move-a-vm-to-a-different-vnet-onazure/
https://4sysops.com/archives/move-an-azure-vm-to-another-virtual-network-vnet/#migrate-an-azure-vm-between-vnets

QUESTION 3
You have a virtual network named VNet1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q3

No devices are connected to VNet1.
You plan to peer VNet1 to another virtual network named VNet2. VNet2 has an address space of 10.2.0.0/16.
You need to create the peering.
What should you do first?
A. Configure a service endpoint on VNet2.
B. Add a gateway subnet to VNet1.
C. Create a subnet on VNEt1 and VNet2.
D. Modify the address space of VNet1.
Correct Answer: D
The virtual networks you peer must have non-overlapping IP address spaces. The exhibit indicates that VNet1 has an
address space of 10.2.0.0/16, which is the same as VNet2, and thus overlaps. We need to change the address space
for VNet1.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-andconstraints

QUESTION 4
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine named SQL1.
You need to automate the backup of the databases on SQL1 by using Automated Backup v2 for the virtual machines.
The backups must meet the following requirements:
Meet a recovery point objective (RPO) of 15 minutes.
Retain the backups for 30 days.
Encrypt the backups at rest.
What should you provision as part of the backup solution?
A. Elastic Database jobs
B. Azure Key Vault
C. an Azure Storage account
D. a Recovery Services vault
Correct Answer: C
An Azure storage account is used for storing Automated Backup files in blob storage. A container is created at this
location to store all backup files. The backup file naming convention includes the date, time, and database GUID.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/virtual-machines/windows/automated-backup

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains a virtual network named VNet1.
You add the users in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q5

Box 1: User1 only.
User1: The Owner Role lets you manage everything, including access to resources.
Not User3: The Network Contributor role lets you manage networks, but not access to them. Box 2: User1 and User2 only
The Security Admin role: In Security Center only: Can view security policies, view security states, edit security policies,
view alerts and recommendations, dismiss alerts and recommendations.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles

QUESTION 6
An administrator plans to create a function app in Azure that will have the following settings:
Runtime stack: .NET Core Operating System: Linux Plan type: Consumption Enable Application Insights: Yes
You need to ensure that you can back up the function app.
Which settings should you recommend changing before creating the function app?
A. Runtime stack
B. Enable Application Insights
C. Operating System
D. Plan type
Correct Answer: D
The Backup and Restore feature requires the App Service plan to be in the Standard, Premium or Isolated tier.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/manage-backup#requirements-and-restrictions

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains the web apps shown in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q7

For which web app can you configure a WebJob?
A. WebApp1
B. WebApp4
C. WebApp2
D. WebApp3
Correct Answer: B
Publishing a .NET Core WebJob to App Service from Visual Studio uses the same tooling as publishing an ASP.NET
Core app.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/webjobs-dotnet-deploy-vs

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines on a virtual network.
You need to create a graph visualization to display the traffic flow between the virtual machines.
What should you do from Azure Monitor?
A. From Activity log, use quick insights.
B. From Metrics, create a chart.
C. From Logs, create a new query.
D. From Workbooks, create a workbook.
Correct Answer: C
Navigate to Azure Monitor and select Logs to begin querying the data
Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/analysis-of-network-connection-data-with-azure-monitor-for-virtualmachines/


QUESTION 9
You have three Azure SQL Database servers shown in the following table.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q9

You plan to specify sqlserver1 as the primary server in a failover group.
Which servers can be used as a secondary server?
A. sqlserver4 and sqlserver5 only
B. sqlserver2 and sqlserver3 only
C. sqlserver1 and sqlserver3 only
D. sqlserver2 and sqlserver4 only
Correct Answer: D
The Resource Group must be the same.
The secondary server can have another location.
The secondary server cannot be the same as the primary server.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/auto-failover-group-configure

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Resource Manager template named Template1 in the library as shown in the following exhibit.

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q10-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/templates/template-syntax


QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. Server1 is a container host.
You are creating a Dockerfile to build a container image.
You need to add a file named File1.txt from Server1 to a folder named C:\Folder1 in the container image.
Solution: You add the following line to the Dockerfile.
XCOPY File1.txt C:\Folder1\
You then build the container image.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Copy is the correct command to copy a file to the container image. Furthermore, the root directory is specified as \\’/\\’
and not as \\’C:/\\’.
Reference: https://docs.docker.com/develop/develop-images/dockerfile_best-practices/#add-or-copy
https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/builder/

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You plan to create an Azure Storage account in the Azure region of East US 2.
You need to create a storage account that meets the following requirements:
Replicates synchronously
Remains available if a single data center in the region fails
How should you configure the storage account? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

ccdpexamdumps az-303 exam questions-q12-2

Box 1: Zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates your data synchronously across three storage clusters in a single region.
LRS would not remain available if a data center in the region fails
GRS and RA GRS use asynchronous replication.
Box 2: StorageV2 (general purpose V2)
ZRS only support GPv2.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-zrs

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers
that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other identity Governance settings are
available.
Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key
features of PIM include: Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

 

 

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QUESTION 1
A systems administrator wants to know the current status of a series of dd jobs that were started in the background
three hours ago. Which of the following commands will achieve this task?
A. sudo killall -HUP dd
B. sudo killall dd
C. sudo killall -TERM dd
D. sudo killall -USR1 dd
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://askubuntu.com/questions/215505/how-do-you-monitor-the-progress-of-dd


QUESTION 2
The development team has automated their software build process so each time a change is submitted to the source
code repository, a new software build is compiled. They are requesting that the Linux operations team look into
automating the deployment of the software build into the test environment. Which of the following is the benefit to the
development team for implementing deployment automation?
A. To ensure the build commits are also deployed to the test environment
B. To enable notifications when builds are deployed to the test environment
C. To ensure software builds in test are not accidentally deployed to production
D. To streamline the deployment process for deploying builds into test environments
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the template for the grub.cfg file?
A. /etc/default/grub
B. /etc/grub2.cfg
C. /etc/sysct1.conf
D. /boot/efi
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the BEST reason for not storing database files in the /var directory?
A. The /var filesystem is not fast enough for database files.
B. The number of files in /var is limited by the available inodes.
C. Files in /var do not have strict file permissions.
D. If log files fill up /var, it might corrupt the database.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A technician wants to secure a sensitive workstation by ensuring network traffic is kept within the local subnet. To
accomplish this task, the technician executes the following command:
echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_default_ttl
Which of the following commands can the technician use to confirm the expected results? (Choose two.)
A. tcpdump
B. traceroute
C. route
D. iperf
E. ip
F. arp
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 6
A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following
commands would disable the use of Bluetooth?
A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth
B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth
C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth
D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An operator finds a user is having issues with opening certain files.
Which of the following commands would allow the security administrator to list and check the SELinux context?
A. ls –D
B. ls -a
C. ls -Z
D. ls -l
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/securityenhanced_linux/sect-security-enhanced_linux-working_with_selinux-selinux_contexts_labeling_files


QUESTION 8
A Linux administrator wants to obtain a list of files and subdirectories in the /etc directory that contain the word
“services”. Once the files and subdirectories are discovered, they should be listed alphabetically in the /var/tmp/
foundservices file. Which of the following shell scripts will accomplish this task?
A. #/bin/bash find /etc -name services | sort > /var/tmp/foundservices
B. #/bin/bash locate /etc -sort -name services > /var/tmp/foundservices
C. #/bin/bash find -name services -sort /var/tmp/foundservices
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
In order to comply with new security policies, an administrator needs to prevent the SSH server from using insecure
algorithms. Which of the following files should be edited to accomplish this?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
C. ~/.ssh/ssh_config
D. /etc/ssh/known_hosts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements BEST represents what the term “agentless” means regarding orchestration?
A. Installation of a tool is not required on the remote system to perform orchestration tasks
B. It facilitates version control when using infrastructure as code during orchestration
C. It automatically removes malware from the remote system during orchestration
D. A tool can only be accessed remotely to perform orchestration tasks
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/agentless


QUESTION 11
A company wants to ensure that all newly created files can be modified only by their owners and that all new directory
content can be changed only by the creator of the directory. Which of the following commands will help achieve this
task?
A. umask 0022
B. umask 0012
C. chmod -R 0644 /
D. chmod -R 0755 /
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.computerhope.com/unix/uumask.htm


QUESTION 12
A Linux systems administrator needs to provision multiple web servers into separate regional datacenters. The systems
architect has instructed the administrator to define the server infrastructure using a specific tool that consumes a textbased file.
Which of the following is the BEST reason to do this?
A. To document the infrastructure so it can be included in the system security plan
B. To ensure the administrator follows the planning phase of the system development life cycle
C. To define the infrastructure so it can be provisioned consistently with minimal manual tasks
D. To validate user requirements have been met within each regional datacenter for compliance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A systems administrator wants to deploy several applications to the same server quickly. Each application should be abstracted from the host with its own dependencies and libraries and utilize a minimal footprint. Which of the following
would be BEST in this scenario?
A. Virtual machines
B. Type 2 hypervisor
C. Chroot jails
D. Containers
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A container running a Python script is failing when it reaches the integration testing phase of the CI/CD process. The
code has been reviewed thoroughly and the build process works on this container and all other containers pass unit and
integration testing.
What should be verified to resolve the issue?
A. that the correct port is exposed in the Dockerfile
B. that the necessary modules and packages are installed on build
C. that the script is running from the night directory
D. that the Python version of the container image is correct
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Into which two areas are AppDynamics APIs categorized? (Choose two.)
A. application-centric
B. analytics-events
C. database-visibility
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the
missing sections in the curl exhibit to complete the cURL request to FirePower Device Manager API to create objects.
Not all code snippets are used.
Select and Place:

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q3-2

Correct Answer:

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q3-3

QUESTION 4
Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. input validation
B. trim whitespace
C. limit text areas to 255 characters
D. string escaping of user free text and data entry
E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 5
A developer needs to configure an environment to orchestrate and configure. Which two tools should be used for each
task? (Choose two.)
A. Puppet for orchestration
B. Terraform for orchestration
C. Terraform for configuration
D. Ansible for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 6
A network operations team is using the cloud to automate some of their managed customer and branch locations. They
require that all of their tooling be ephemeral by design and that the entire automation environment can be recreated
without manual commands. Automation code and configuration state will be stored in git for change control and
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tooling onto these VMs to poll, test, and configure the remote devices, as well as deploy the tooling itself.
Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Ansible and Terraform
C. NSO
D. Terraform
E. Ansible and NSO
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which snippet presents the correct API call to configure, secure, and enable an SSID using the Meraki API?

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q7

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q7-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. A developer is creating a Python script to use the Webex Teams REST API to list joined spaces,
retry after the server-specified amount of time if a “Too many requests” response is received, and print any other error
that is received. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing
sections in the exhibit to complete the script. Not all code snippets are used.
Select and Place:

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q8-3

QUESTION 9
Click on the GET Resource button above to view resources that will help with this question.

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q9

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q9-2

An engineer is managing a DC with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running. The engineer has been asked to
identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB.
Which REST API call accomplishes this task?
A. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=not(Model eq `UCSC\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
B. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=Model eq `UCSB\\’ and AvailableMemory lt
5000
C. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory lt 5000
D. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A cloud native project is being worked on in which all source code and dependencies are written in Python, Ruby,
and/or JavaScnpt. A change in code triggers a notification to the CI/CD tool to run the CI/CD pipeline.
Which step should be omitted from the pipeline?
A. Deploy the code to one or more environments, such as staging and/or production.
B. Build one of more containers that package up code and all its dependencies.
C. Compile code.
D. Run automated tests to validate the correctness.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the expressions from below onto the code to implement error handling. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

ccdpexamdumps 350-901 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12

ccdpexamdumps-350-901-exam-questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which code snippet is required in the headers to successfully authorize wireless information from
Cisco DNA Center?

A. headers = {`X-auth-token\\’:\\’fa8426a0-8eaf-4d22-8e13-7c1b16a9370c\\’}
B. headers = {`Authorization\\’:\\’Basic YWRtaW46R3JhcGV2aW5IMQ==\\’}
C. headers = {`Authorization\\’:\\’Bearer ASDNFALKJER23412RKDALSNKF”}
D. headers = {`Content-type\\’:\\’application/json}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
There is a requirement to securely store unique usernames and passwords. Given a valid username, it is also required
to validate that the password provided is correct. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Encrypt the username, hash the password, and store these values.
B. Hash the username, hash the password, and store these values.
C. Encrypt the username, encrypt the password, and store these values.
D. Hash the username, encrypt the password, and store these values.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
070-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days. What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

070-410 dumps

A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors. You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails. What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1. You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
How many times a day, can you change your daily budget for a Google AdWords campaign?
A. Ten
B. Thirty
C. As many times as you’d like to.
D. One
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Google AdWords has many categories of items and services for sale which they do not allow for advertisement. Which of the following items is NOT permitted to be advertised on Google AdWords?
A. Puppies
B. Cars
C. Cigars
D. Political ads
070-410 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
Fred is helping a client to create ads for Google AdWords. Fred stresses to the client that they should not only identify keywords for the client’s search, but also use the keyword in the Google AdWords display text. Why is this a good thing to do for Google AdWords?
A. By using the keyword in the ad text Google will give the ad a higher ranking, when a user searches for that exact keyword.
B. By using the keyword in the ad text Google will cause the ad to move to the top of the search list, when a user searches for that exact keyword.
C. By using the keyword in the ad text Google will cause the keyword to appear in bold in the ad, when a user searches for that exact keyword.
D. By using the keyword in the ad text Google will lower the CPC per ad, when a user searches for that exact keyword.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for their Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the lowest possible value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a combination of the Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn’t satisfied and wants a more in-depth explanation. Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords  determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you’re your keywords by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person moves to the top of the order.
D. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
070-410 exam Answer: B

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What you’ll learn

300-370 WITSHOOT
Certification: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available languages: English

  • Build highly-accurate models of existing or planned networks.
  • Design, configure, and operate networks using authentic versions of Cisco’s network operating systems
  • Build using common platforms like IOSv, IOSv Layer-2, IOS-XRv, NX-OSv, CSR1000v and ASAv. All Included
  • Integrate 3rd-party virtual machines, appliances, VNFs, and servers.
  • Connect real and virtual networks to form high-fidelity development and test environments.
  • Design and test anywhere – Cisco VIRL is portable!

Requirements

  • Classroom training
  • E-learning
  • Practice

Study material list

Troubleshooting Methodology

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Cheat Sheet Common Wireless issues
Understanding Debug Client on Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs)
WLC Debug and Show Commands
Understanding the Ping and Traceroute Commands
Important Information on Debug Commands

Troubleshoot AP joining issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshoot a Lightweight Access Point Not Joining a Wireless LAN Controller

Troubleshoot client connectivity issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Client Troubleshooting- Cisco Wireless Controller
Unified Wireless Network: Troubleshoot Client Issues
Troubleshooting Connectivity in a Wireless LAN Network

Identify and locate RF Interferences

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1CLN Store Content
Omni Antenna vs. Directional Antenna
Troubleshooting Problems Affecting Radio Frequency Communication

Troubleshoot Client Performance issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshoot 802.11n Speeds
Unified Wireless Network: Troubleshoot Client Issues
Wireless Throughput issues Troubleshooting

Identify common wired infrastructure issues based on the output from common troubleshooting tools

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshooting Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Fixing a Broken Wireless LAN Connection
DHCP with the WLC

Troubleshoot WLC and AP High Availability Issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Configuring Stateful Switchover: Troubleshooting Stateful Switchover

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-370

QUESTION 1
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains
the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. viaddr
D. giaddr
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which troubleshooting approach is represented?

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q1

A. divide and conquer
B. bottom-up
C. information gathering
D. top-down
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q3

An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues. When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output. Which option indicates poor
access point placement?
A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer is troubleshooting a DHCP configuration that is being used to discover two WLCs with the IP addresses of
192.168.10.10 and 192.168.10.11. Which string is used for configuration?
A. option 80 hex f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a8.0a0b
B. option 60 ip 192.168.10.10 192.168.10.11
C. option 43 ip f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a8.0a0b
D. option 43 hex f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a0b
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Wireless users encounter choppy VoVLAN on one floor of a building. Which troubleshooting approach will determine the
cause of the issue in the least amount of time?
A. move the problem
B. top down
C. shoot from the hip
D. bottom up
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q7

Employees upgraded company issued iOS devices, which are configured to authenticate to the network using
WPA2-Enterprise 802.1x with LEAP. As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the
engineer do to resolve the issue?
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A training class has 15 laptops connecting to the WLAN using the same Active Directory training credentials. Users
report that they cannot connect until someone else logs off. At any one time, only half of the class connect to the
internet. Which option must be checked first?
A. Maximum Allowed Clients
B. Client Exclusion
C. Co-channel interference
D. DHCP address pool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer has received an alarm on a wireless LAN controller and is unsure of its meaning. The engineer attempted
to ping the wireless LAN controller interfaces. Which troubleshooting methodology does this action demonstrate?
A. bottom-up
B. follow the path
C. shoot from the hip
D. top-down
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which modulation, which was introduced in 802.11ac standard, influences end-user experience by providing the highest
data rates and throughput?
A. 256 QAM
B. QPSK
C. 16 QAM
D. 64 QAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access
the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to
access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP.
What two conditions must occur for the controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB

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What you’ll learn

300-360 WIDESIGN
Certification: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available languages: English

  • Determine customer Wi-Fi design process
  • Design for data coverage
  • Design for voice and real-time applications
  • Design for location and Cisco CMX
  • Design for Wi-Fi beyond the enterprise campus
  • Describe how to conduct a site survey

Requirements

  • Self-Study E-Learning
  • Instructor Led Training
  • Cisco Press

Study material list

Obtaining Customer Requirements as related to the WLAN Installation

Cisco CleanAir Technology
Survey Tools
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Determine facility type and constraints Related to WLAN Deployments

Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Wireless LAN Design Guide for High Density Client Environments in Higher Education
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

WLAN Predictive Design

Cisco Wireless with the Ekahau Real-Time Location System (RFID over Wi-Fi)
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Pre-deployment site survey

Improving Air Quality with Cisco CleanAir
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Cisco Wireless Mesh Access Points, Design and Deployment Guide, Release 8.1
Indoor Mesh Deployment Guide
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Post-deployment site survey

Post-Deployment Radio Frequency Tuning
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 Reference Guide
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 Administrator Guide
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 User Guide
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Design the infrastructure of the wireless network

Power over Ethernet (PoE) Power Requirements FAQ
IPv6 First-Hop Security Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Describe and Design Wireless architecture for Real time applications

Designing the Wireless LAN for Cisco Jabber
Design Principles for Voice over WLAN
Understanding IP Telephony Protocols
WLAN RF Design Considerations
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-360

QUESTION 1
The ClO of a company wants to start tracking inventory in the warehouse using RFID tags and their existing wireless
network.
The company hires a wireless engineer to ensure that their existing network can support this new initiative. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help the wireless engineer?
A. Planning Mode
B. Map Editor
C. Site Survey
D. Location Readiness
Correct Answer: D
Using Chokepoints to Enhance Tag Location Reporting Installation of chokepoints provides enhanced location
information for RFID tags. When an active Cisco- compatible Extensions Version 1-compliant RFID tag enters the range
of a chokepoint, it is stimulated by the chokepoint. The MAC address of this chokepoint is then included in the next
beacon sent by the stimulated tag. All access points that detect this tag beacon then forward the information to the
controller and location appliance.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/3-0/user/guide/pi_ug/wireless-map s.html#91300

QUESTION 2
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also
entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the
survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP
devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
After implementing mesh with an IP surveillance camera connected to the LAN port on a RAP, the engineer notices that
QoS is not being marked. In this setup, what device is responsible for marking upstream traffic from the camera?
A. IP Camera
B. MAP
C. RAP
D. Wireless Controller
E. First-Hop Router
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access
points the customer needs to service the new floor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/
maps.html#pgfId-1671104

QUESTION 7
You must perform a Layer1 survey by using Metageek Chanalyzer on the current operating mode is configured for
Cisco CleanAir AP?
A. Local
B. SE-connect
C. Monitor
D. Sniffer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to
when determining where APs can be installed?
A. Local or National Building Code
B. IEEE
C. BICSI TDMM
D. Cisco Hardware Installation Guide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The AP has been configured property for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm.
What is the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -62 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -60 dBm
D. -70 dBm
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-Guide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-9.html Cisco guidelines for deploying 802.11b/g/a VoWLAN
handsets recommend a design where a minimum power of -67 dBm is present at the cell boundary (see Figure 9-10).
This practice creates cell sizes that are smaller than those used in data WLAN designs of the past. The -67 dBm
threshold is a general recommendation for achieving a packet error of one percent, which requires an SNR value of 25
dB or greater (local noise conditions impact this requirement).

QUESTION 10
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Anetwork engineer is performing a site survey in preparation for an installation. Which three hardware parameters must
be inspected? (Choose three.)
A.routing protocol used
B.PoE capability
C.switch STP capability
D.distance of antenna to communications room
E.switch port availability
F.distance of access point to communications room
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 12
A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows
significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be
excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity?
A. 132
B. 44
C. 11
D. 36
Correct Answer: A
Weather radars operate within the 5600-to 5650-MHz band, which means that channels 124 and 128 might be affected,
but also channels 120 and 132 might suffer from weather radar activity. http://www.cisco.com/ c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/
technology/mesh/7-3/design/guide/Mesh/ Mesh_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 13
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. Which two menus will engineer navigate to in
order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor ?Access Points
B. Wireless ?Access Points
C. Management ?Summary
D. Controller ?Inventory
E. Monitor ?Summary
Correct Answer: CD

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What you’ll learn

300-209 SIMOS
Certification: CCNP Security
Duration: 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available languages: English, Japanese

Secure Communications
Troubleshooting, Monitoring and Reporting Tools
Secure Communications Architectures

  • Describe the various VPN technologies and deployments as well as the cryptographic algorithms and protocols that provide VPN security
  • Implement and maintain Cisco site-to-site VPN solutions
  • Implement and maintain Cisco FlexVPN in point-to-point, hub-and-spoke, and spoke-to-spoke IPsec VPNs
  • Implement and maintain Cisco clientless SSL VPNs
  • Implement and maintain Cisco AnyConnect SSL and IPsec VPNs
  • Implement and maintain endpoint security and dynamic access policies (DAP)

Requirements

  • Classroom training
  • E-learning
  • Practice

Secure Communications

Cisco Access Control Security: AAA Administration Services
Complete Cisco VPN Configuration Guide
Cisco ASA: All-in-One Firewall, IPS, Anti-X, and VPN Adaptive Security Appliance, 2nd Edition
Configuring Remote Access VPN via ASDM
Diffie-Hellman (D-H) Key Exchange Calculations
CCNA Security: SSL VPNs
CCNA Security: IPsec VPNs
Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS) v1.0

Troubleshooting, Monitoring, and Reporting Tools

Troubleshooting Virtual Private Networks (VPN)
Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS) v1.0

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-209

QUESTION 1
Which option is a possible solution if you cannot access a URL through clientless SSL VPN with Internet Explorer, while
other browsers work fine?
A. Verify the trusted zone and cookies settings in your browser.
B. Make sure that you specified the URL correctly.
C. Try the URL from another operating system.
D. Move to the IPsec client.
Correct Answe : A

QUESTION 2
A private wan connection is suspected of intermittently corrupting data. Which technology can a network administrator
use to detect and drop the altered data traffic?
A. AES-128
B. RSA Certificates
C. SHA2-HMAC
D. 3DES
E. Diffie-Helman Key Generation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which exchange does this debug output represent?

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q3

A. IKE Phase 1
B. IKE Phase 2
C. symmetric key exchange
D. certificate exchange
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco ASA configuration is used to configure the TCP intercept feature?
A. a TCP map
B. an access list
C. the established command
D. the set connection command with the embryonic-conn-max option
E. a type inspect policy map
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Which two IKEv1 parameters must match on both peers? (Choose
two.)
A. encryption algorithm
B. access lists
C. encryption domains
D. QoS
E. hashing method
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. You are implementing DMVPN Phase 3 in an existing network that uses DMVPN Phase1. You
configure NHRP, but the creation of the spoke-to-spoke tunnel fails. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Remove the multicast flag from the NHRP configuration.
B. Configure the tunnel of the hub by using point-to-point tunnel mode.
C. Configure the tunnel of the spoke by using mGRE tunnel mode.
D. Remove NHRP redirects from the hub configuration.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.patrickdenis.biz/blog/dmvpn-phase-1-2-and-3/

QUESTION 7
Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. IKEv2
D. ISAKMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the Exhibit. Which statement is accurate based on this configuration?

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q8

A. Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect.
B. Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2.
C. Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2.
D. Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A customer requires site-to-site VPNs to connect to third party business partners and has purchased two ASAs. The
customer requests an active/active configuration. Winch mode is needed to support and active/active solution?
A. single context
B. NAT context
C. PAT context
D. multiple context
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer wants to ensure that Diffie-Helman keys are re-generated upon a pahse-2 rekey. What option can be
configured to allow this?
A. Aggressive mode
B. Dead-peer detection
C. Main mode
D. Perfect-forward secrecy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which cryptographic method provides passphrase protection while importing or exporting keys?
A. AES
B. RSA
C. Serpent
D. Blowfish
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_pki/configuration/xe-3s/sec-pki-xe-3s-book/secdeploy-rsa-pki.pdf

QUESTION 13
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

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How To Pass Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Certification Exam

CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135

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“Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)”: https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html (Q&As: 395). Free Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam practice test. Improve your skills and exam experience!

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300-135 TSHOOT – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/tshoot2.html

The latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Drag the GRE tunnel state from the left onto its corresponding scenario on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You examine the port statistics on a Cisco Catalyst switch and notice an excessive number of frames are being
dropped. Which of the following are possible reasons for the drops?
A. Unknown destination MAC address
B. Bad cabling
C. MAC forwarding table is full
D. Port configured for half duplex
E. Port configured for full duplex
F. Network congestion
Correct Answer: BF

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q3

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D
On R4, in the redistribution of EIGRP routing protocol, we need to change name of routemap to resolve the issue. It
references route-map OSPF_to_EIGRP but the actual route map is called OSPF->EIGRP. Since Client 1 is able to ping
the near-end interface of the router R4 but not the far-end interface, we can be reasonably certain that the fault
condition is with R4.

 

QUESTION 6
The implementation group has been using the test bed to do an IPv6 \\’proof-ofconcept1.
After several changes to the network addressing and routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that
the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2 (2026::102:1).
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: G
As explained earlier, the problem is with route redistribution on R4 of not redistributing RIP routes into OSPF for IPV6.

 

QUESTION 7
Configuration on R1 interface Serial0/0/1 description Link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat
outside ip access-group edge_security in ! ip access-list extended edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any deny 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any permit ip
host 209.65.200.241 any !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. add permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command to R1s ACL
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor
209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Output showing line VTY 0 4 config with an access list applied `ip access-class 1 in\\’
ip access list permit tcp any any eq 22 ip access list permit tcp any any telnet Cisco engineer is trying to setup secure
access to the router but why is SSH failing?
A. access-list needs to be applied with access-group command.
B. access-list only allows telnet access.
C. They\\’re needed to be transport input ssh on line vty 0 4
D. https://www.CertBus.com/300-125.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the ping response to a transmitted echo that needed to be fragmented and fragmentation was not allowed?
A. U
B. M
C. …
D. D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q10

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?
A. Configure static ARP in gateway router
B. Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router
C. Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration enter standby 10 preempt command.
B. Under the track 1 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command and enter the threshold
metric up 61 down 62 command.
C. Under the track 10 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command and enter the threshold
metric up 1 down 2 command.
D. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration delete the standby 10 track1 decrement 60 command and enter the standby
10 track 10 decrement 60 command.
Correct Answer: D
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The reason that router DSW1 will not become the active router is because it is configured to track the 10.1.21.128
255.255.0.0 network. It should have been configured to track the 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 network. This can be fixed
by
replacing the Change “standby 10 track 1 decrement 60” command with the “standby 10 track 10 decrement 60”
command.

 

QUESTION 12
If you want to use GRE with IPSec which is compatible with NAT traversal?
A. MD5 mode
B. SHA mode
C. IPsec tunnel mode
D. tunnel transport
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
—Output from config–service password-encryption ! line console password a123124 ! line vty 0 4 password asdfasf12
login transport input telnet ! What will happen if client A will telnet to this device.
A. Telnet will be successful
B. Telnet will fail because of missing user database
C. Telnet will fail because of missing aaa new model
D. Telnet will fail because only ssh is allowed
Correct Answer: A

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300-465 CLDDES – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clddes.html

  • translate requirements into cloud/automation process designs
  • design Private Cloud infrastructures
  • design Public Cloud infrastructures
  • design Cloud Security Policies
  • design Virtualization and Virtual Network Services

Latest effective Cisco 300-465 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A cloudadministratoris migrating a VM to the Intercloud FabricCloud.What optionliststhesteps that are needed to achievethis task?

pass4itsure 300-465 exam question q1

A. B. C. D.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three network services are offered by Microsoft Azure? (Choose three.)
A. elastic load balancing
B. traffic manager route incoming traffic for high performance and availability
C. intrusion detection systems, load balancing, firewalls
D. virtual private networks to be deployed and managed
E. virtual network provision private networks, optionally connect to on-premises datacenters
F. express route dedicated private network fiber connections to Azure
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 3
From which module must a manager or supervior review and authorize the service when end user submits an order in
the prime service catalog?
A. Order Management
B. Service e Request
C. Requisition
D. Administration
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A cloud administrator is considering storage for a deployment. The admin needs a solution that is durable and reliable
and fits the need for storing media, web assets, and backups. Which solution meets this need the best?
A. Cloud file storage
B. Cloud block storage
C. Cloud hybrid storage
D. Cloud NFS storage
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two options are Cisco Intercloud Fabric Deployment Models? (Choose two.)
A. enterprise managed
B. enterprise DMZ controlled
C. small office home office deployment
D. service provider managed hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which describes the best option when beginning a cloud design?
A. Outline even/ challenge in the data center in a business justification document.
B. Switch to a single hypervisor provider.
C. Leverage automation as a foundational concept.
D. Hire enough resources to maintain a 5-to-1 relationship with managed devices.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which option does not relate to the zero trust model?
A. secure access
B. orchestration
C. intrusion protection system
D. segmentation
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
An administrator is designing a cloud environment lo support multi-tenancy. The customs will share infrastructure,
applications. Which two designconcernsshould have priority? (Choose two)
A. core layer segmentation
B. to ensure that proper upgrade protocols are planned out
C. VM segmentation and database segmentation
D. to ensure that proper security and isolation protects tenants from the risks they pose to one another
E. data center infrastructure segmentation
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS Director administrator has added vCenter to the virtual data center. Which two vCenter functionalities are
not available in Cisco Director? (Choose two.)
A. create a VM
B. assign a VM
C. delete a VM
D. use Stack View
E. clone a VM
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 10
Which three components are involved the design of Cisco Secure cloud extension? (Choose three.)
A. Intercloud Fabric Extender
B. Amazon Hybrid Cloud
C. third party firewall to secure the connection
D. Amazon Web Services
E. TLS tunnel, to extend the VLAN
F. Intercloud Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 11
A system administrator must use Cisco UCS Director to migrate several virtual machines from one host to another
without disrupting the workload In whichtwo ways can the administrator accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. migrate VM policy
B. migrate VM wizard
C. hot VW migration wizard
D. hot VM workflow task
E. migrate VM workflow task
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 12
Which two storage connectivity types are most widely used for VMFS datastores? (Choose two
A. iSCSI
B. FC/FCoE
C. NFS
D. CIFS
E. SCSI
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which two options need to be considered to build a context aware infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. VIAN segmentation (or every application type.
B. The design of data formats and network protocols for the platform.
C. Creating zero connectivity environments for sensitive data.
D. The building of basic services in the infrastructure, including automatic path creation and proximity-based discovery.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 14
Which two options are Cisco Intercloud Fabric use cases? (Choose two.)
A. development and testing
B. capacity reduction
C. legal compliance
D. secure administrative access
E. shadow IT control
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 15
Which option describes the foundation of automated cloud design?
A. Start small, automate infrastructure, and define success criteria.
B. Automate interaction with all application services before moving on to infrastructure.
C. Contact your local cloud provider
D. Not all cloud designs are subject to automation
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies.
Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed.
The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link.
The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami.
The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers.
The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users.
You configure the following:
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com.
In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following:
A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com
Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com
You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements:
Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located.
Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365.
The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.
Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses.
A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records.
Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You have a database availability group (DAG) that contains four Exchange servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. The file share witness is on a server named Share1.
The organization has two Send connectors. The Send connectors are configured as shown in the following table.
Users report that email sent to external recipients is not being received.
You discover that outbound email messages are queued on Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages queued on Server3 and Server4 are delivered to the Internet as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Modify the cost of External2.
B. Disable External1.
C. Modify the list of source bridgehead servers of External2.
D. Modify the cost of External1.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
Microsoft Outlook is configured to connect to an FQDN of mail.adatum.com. Mail.adatum.com resolves to the IP address of a Layer 7 hardware load balancer. The hardware load balancer is configured to send traffic to EX2 and EX3.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server named EX4 and an Exchange Server 2013 Client Access server named EX5.
You plan to migrate all mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can access their mailbox on EX1 or EX4 during the migration.
What should you do?
A. Create a Client Access server array that contains EX1 and EX5.
B. Modify the autodiscover.contoso.com resource record to point to EX5.
C. Modify the properties of the hardware load balancer to point to EX5.
D. Create a DNS record named legacy.contoso.com in the internal DNS zone.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle. You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3.
You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails.
Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution. Choose two.)
A. Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B. Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C. Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D. Move the file share witness to Server1.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. The mode of the DLP policy is set to Enforce.
You need to ensure that email messages containing social security numbers from the United States are blocked.
Which two possible rules achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. U.S. State Breach: Allow Override
B. U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – low count
C. U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – high count
D. U.S. State Breach: Scan text limit exceeded
E. U.S. State Breach: Attachment not supported
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
B. New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
C. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Your company has three offices. Each office has 1,000 users and is configured as an Active Directory site. Each site connects directly to the Internet.
The network contains six servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
An administrator performs a datacenter switchover by changing the DNS record for webl.adatum.com to point to the IP address of web2.adatum.com.
Users from Main1 report that when they connect to Outlook Web App, they receive a certificate warning message. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users do not receive a certificate warning message when a datacenter
switchover is performed.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Three host headers for the Default Web Site on each Client Access server
B. One certificate that contains all of the external names as subject alternative names
C. Three certificates that each contains one of the external names
D. An external URL for each Client Access server set to $null
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 22
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All users are issued certificates from an internal certification authority (CA).
Users who have a laptop can access their mailbox from the Internet by using Outlook Anywhere.
When the users attempt to view or to create digitally signed email messages while they are connected to the Internet, the users receive a warning message.
When the users use their laptop on the internal network, the users do not receive a warning message.
You need to ensure that the users can send and receive digitally signed email messages without receiving a warning message.
What should you do?
A. Publish the root certificate of the CA to a server that is accessible from the Internet.
B. Publish the certificate revocation list (CRL) to a server that is accessible from the Internet.
C. Install a trusted root CA certificate on all Client Access servers.
D. Install a trusted root CA certificate on all of the laptops.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
B. Merge PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
C. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
D. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
You have an Exchange Server organization. The organization contains servers that have either Exchange Server 2010 or Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You hire a new helpdesk technician named helpdesk1. Helpdesk1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group.
You discover that helpdesk1 created nine new mailbox-enabled users by using the New-Mailbox command.
You need to identify which management role provides helpdesk1 with the permissions to create new mailbox-enabled users.
Which cmdlets should you run?
A. Get-ManagementRoleEntry and Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
B. Get-RolegroupMember and Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
C. Get-ManagementRoleEntry and Get-RoleGroup
D. Get-Rolegroup and Get-RoleGroupMember
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 28
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. From the Exchange Admin Center, create a new certificate request.
B. On each Client Access server, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
C. On all of the Client Access servers, delete the default self-signed certificates.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, run the Remove-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
A user named User1 has a mailbox that is enabled for Unified Messaging (UM). User1 has nine call answering rules.
When User1 attempts to create a new call answering rule, the user receives an error message.
You need to identify what prevents User1 from creating a call answering rule.
What should you identify?
A. The mailbox of User1 has the CallAnsweringRulesEnabled parameter set to $false
B. The UM mailbox policy of User1 has the AllowCallAnsweringRules parameter set to $false.
C. User1 exceeds the Inbox rules storage quota.
D. User1 has the maximum number of call answering rules allowed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
You have an Exchange Server 2007 organization.
You deploy a new Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You plan to move all of the mailboxes to the new organization by performing a cross-forest mailbox move.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the following requirements:
Users must be able to reply successfully to email messages they received before their mailbox moved.
Users must be able to send email messages to internal mailboxes by using the entries in the nickname cache that existed in Microsoft Outlook before their mailbox moved.
What should you recommend doing before moving the mailboxes?
A. Create a sharing policy and a remote domain.
B. Create an organization relationship and a remote domain.
C. For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an x500 proxy address.
D. For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an SMTP proxy address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Merge PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D. New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
Correct Answer: D
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