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What you’ll learn

300-370 WITSHOOT
Certification: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available languages: English

  • Build highly-accurate models of existing or planned networks.
  • Design, configure, and operate networks using authentic versions of Cisco’s network operating systems
  • Build using common platforms like IOSv, IOSv Layer-2, IOS-XRv, NX-OSv, CSR1000v and ASAv. All Included
  • Integrate 3rd-party virtual machines, appliances, VNFs, and servers.
  • Connect real and virtual networks to form high-fidelity development and test environments.
  • Design and test anywhere – Cisco VIRL is portable!

Requirements

  • Classroom training
  • E-learning
  • Practice

Study material list

Troubleshooting Methodology

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Cheat Sheet Common Wireless issues
Understanding Debug Client on Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs)
WLC Debug and Show Commands
Understanding the Ping and Traceroute Commands
Important Information on Debug Commands

Troubleshoot AP joining issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshoot a Lightweight Access Point Not Joining a Wireless LAN Controller

Troubleshoot client connectivity issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Client Troubleshooting- Cisco Wireless Controller
Unified Wireless Network: Troubleshoot Client Issues
Troubleshooting Connectivity in a Wireless LAN Network

Identify and locate RF Interferences

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1CLN Store Content
Omni Antenna vs. Directional Antenna
Troubleshooting Problems Affecting Radio Frequency Communication

Troubleshoot Client Performance issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshoot 802.11n Speeds
Unified Wireless Network: Troubleshoot Client Issues
Wireless Throughput issues Troubleshooting

Identify common wired infrastructure issues based on the output from common troubleshooting tools

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Troubleshooting Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Fixing a Broken Wireless LAN Connection
DHCP with the WLC

Troubleshoot WLC and AP High Availability Issues

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WITSHOOT) v1.1
Configuring Stateful Switchover: Troubleshooting Stateful Switchover

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-370

QUESTION 1
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains
the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. viaddr
D. giaddr
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which troubleshooting approach is represented?

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q1

A. divide and conquer
B. bottom-up
C. information gathering
D. top-down
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q3

An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues. When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output. Which option indicates poor
access point placement?
A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer is troubleshooting a DHCP configuration that is being used to discover two WLCs with the IP addresses of
192.168.10.10 and 192.168.10.11. Which string is used for configuration?
A. option 80 hex f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a8.0a0b
B. option 60 ip 192.168.10.10 192.168.10.11
C. option 43 ip f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a8.0a0b
D. option 43 hex f108.c0a8.0a0a.c0a0b
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Wireless users encounter choppy VoVLAN on one floor of a building. Which troubleshooting approach will determine the
cause of the issue in the least amount of time?
A. move the problem
B. top down
C. shoot from the hip
D. bottom up
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-370 exams questions-q7

Employees upgraded company issued iOS devices, which are configured to authenticate to the network using
WPA2-Enterprise 802.1x with LEAP. As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the
engineer do to resolve the issue?
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A training class has 15 laptops connecting to the WLAN using the same Active Directory training credentials. Users
report that they cannot connect until someone else logs off. At any one time, only half of the class connect to the
internet. Which option must be checked first?
A. Maximum Allowed Clients
B. Client Exclusion
C. Co-channel interference
D. DHCP address pool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer has received an alarm on a wireless LAN controller and is unsure of its meaning. The engineer attempted
to ping the wireless LAN controller interfaces. Which troubleshooting methodology does this action demonstrate?
A. bottom-up
B. follow the path
C. shoot from the hip
D. top-down
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which modulation, which was introduced in 802.11ac standard, influences end-user experience by providing the highest
data rates and throughput?
A. 256 QAM
B. QPSK
C. 16 QAM
D. 64 QAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access
the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to
access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP.
What two conditions must occur for the controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB

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300-360 Exam Study Guide | Cisco 300-360 exam dumps with correct answers

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What you’ll learn

300-360 WIDESIGN
Certification: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available languages: English

  • Determine customer Wi-Fi design process
  • Design for data coverage
  • Design for voice and real-time applications
  • Design for location and Cisco CMX
  • Design for Wi-Fi beyond the enterprise campus
  • Describe how to conduct a site survey

Requirements

  • Self-Study E-Learning
  • Instructor Led Training
  • Cisco Press

Study material list

Obtaining Customer Requirements as related to the WLAN Installation

Cisco CleanAir Technology
Survey Tools
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Determine facility type and constraints Related to WLAN Deployments

Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Wireless LAN Design Guide for High Density Client Environments in Higher Education
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

WLAN Predictive Design

Cisco Wireless with the Ekahau Real-Time Location System (RFID over Wi-Fi)
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Pre-deployment site survey

Improving Air Quality with Cisco CleanAir
Site Survey Guidelines for WLAN Deployment
Cisco Wireless Mesh Access Points, Design and Deployment Guide, Release 8.1
Indoor Mesh Deployment Guide
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Post-deployment site survey

Post-Deployment Radio Frequency Tuning
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 Reference Guide
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 Administrator Guide
Cisco Prime Infrastructure 3.0 User Guide
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Design the infrastructure of the wireless network

Power over Ethernet (PoE) Power Requirements FAQ
IPv6 First-Hop Security Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

Describe and Design Wireless architecture for Real time applications

Designing the Wireless LAN for Cisco Jabber
Design Principles for Voice over WLAN
Understanding IP Telephony Protocols
WLAN RF Design Considerations
Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) v1.1CLN Store Content

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-360

QUESTION 1
The ClO of a company wants to start tracking inventory in the warehouse using RFID tags and their existing wireless
network.
The company hires a wireless engineer to ensure that their existing network can support this new initiative. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help the wireless engineer?
A. Planning Mode
B. Map Editor
C. Site Survey
D. Location Readiness
Correct Answer: D
Using Chokepoints to Enhance Tag Location Reporting Installation of chokepoints provides enhanced location
information for RFID tags. When an active Cisco- compatible Extensions Version 1-compliant RFID tag enters the range
of a chokepoint, it is stimulated by the chokepoint. The MAC address of this chokepoint is then included in the next
beacon sent by the stimulated tag. All access points that detect this tag beacon then forward the information to the
controller and location appliance.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/3-0/user/guide/pi_ug/wireless-map s.html#91300

QUESTION 2
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also
entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the
survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP
devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
After implementing mesh with an IP surveillance camera connected to the LAN port on a RAP, the engineer notices that
QoS is not being marked. In this setup, what device is responsible for marking upstream traffic from the camera?
A. IP Camera
B. MAP
C. RAP
D. Wireless Controller
E. First-Hop Router
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access
points the customer needs to service the new floor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/
maps.html#pgfId-1671104

QUESTION 7
You must perform a Layer1 survey by using Metageek Chanalyzer on the current operating mode is configured for
Cisco CleanAir AP?
A. Local
B. SE-connect
C. Monitor
D. Sniffer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to
when determining where APs can be installed?
A. Local or National Building Code
B. IEEE
C. BICSI TDMM
D. Cisco Hardware Installation Guide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The AP has been configured property for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm.
What is the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -62 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -60 dBm
D. -70 dBm
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-Guide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-9.html Cisco guidelines for deploying 802.11b/g/a VoWLAN
handsets recommend a design where a minimum power of -67 dBm is present at the cell boundary (see Figure 9-10).
This practice creates cell sizes that are smaller than those used in data WLAN designs of the past. The -67 dBm
threshold is a general recommendation for achieving a packet error of one percent, which requires an SNR value of 25
dB or greater (local noise conditions impact this requirement).

QUESTION 10
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Anetwork engineer is performing a site survey in preparation for an installation. Which three hardware parameters must
be inspected? (Choose three.)
A.routing protocol used
B.PoE capability
C.switch STP capability
D.distance of antenna to communications room
E.switch port availability
F.distance of access point to communications room
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 12
A customer is deploying a mesh outdoor wireless network based on FCC standards where spectrum analysis shows
significant radar energy propagating throughout the coverage area from a local weather station. Which channel must be
excluded from the access points RRM calculation to avoid network disruption due to weather radar activity?
A. 132
B. 44
C. 11
D. 36
Correct Answer: A
Weather radars operate within the 5600-to 5650-MHz band, which means that channels 124 and 128 might be affected,
but also channels 120 and 132 might suffer from weather radar activity. http://www.cisco.com/ c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/
technology/mesh/7-3/design/guide/Mesh/ Mesh_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 13
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. Which two menus will engineer navigate to in
order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor ?Access Points
B. Wireless ?Access Points
C. Management ?Summary
D. Controller ?Inventory
E. Monitor ?Summary
Correct Answer: CD

Summarize:
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Cisco 300-209 exam dumps with correct answers,2019 pass4itsure 300-209 dumps

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What you’ll learn

300-209 SIMOS
Certification: CCNP Security
Duration: 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available languages: English, Japanese

Secure Communications
Troubleshooting, Monitoring and Reporting Tools
Secure Communications Architectures

  • Describe the various VPN technologies and deployments as well as the cryptographic algorithms and protocols that provide VPN security
  • Implement and maintain Cisco site-to-site VPN solutions
  • Implement and maintain Cisco FlexVPN in point-to-point, hub-and-spoke, and spoke-to-spoke IPsec VPNs
  • Implement and maintain Cisco clientless SSL VPNs
  • Implement and maintain Cisco AnyConnect SSL and IPsec VPNs
  • Implement and maintain endpoint security and dynamic access policies (DAP)

Requirements

  • Classroom training
  • E-learning
  • Practice

Secure Communications

Cisco Access Control Security: AAA Administration Services
Complete Cisco VPN Configuration Guide
Cisco ASA: All-in-One Firewall, IPS, Anti-X, and VPN Adaptive Security Appliance, 2nd Edition
Configuring Remote Access VPN via ASDM
Diffie-Hellman (D-H) Key Exchange Calculations
CCNA Security: SSL VPNs
CCNA Security: IPsec VPNs
Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS) v1.0

Troubleshooting, Monitoring, and Reporting Tools

Troubleshooting Virtual Private Networks (VPN)
Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS) v1.0

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Actual Cisco Questions And Answers 300-209

QUESTION 1
Which option is a possible solution if you cannot access a URL through clientless SSL VPN with Internet Explorer, while
other browsers work fine?
A. Verify the trusted zone and cookies settings in your browser.
B. Make sure that you specified the URL correctly.
C. Try the URL from another operating system.
D. Move to the IPsec client.
Correct Answe : A

QUESTION 2
A private wan connection is suspected of intermittently corrupting data. Which technology can a network administrator
use to detect and drop the altered data traffic?
A. AES-128
B. RSA Certificates
C. SHA2-HMAC
D. 3DES
E. Diffie-Helman Key Generation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which exchange does this debug output represent?

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q3

A. IKE Phase 1
B. IKE Phase 2
C. symmetric key exchange
D. certificate exchange
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco ASA configuration is used to configure the TCP intercept feature?
A. a TCP map
B. an access list
C. the established command
D. the set connection command with the embryonic-conn-max option
E. a type inspect policy map
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Which two IKEv1 parameters must match on both peers? (Choose
two.)
A. encryption algorithm
B. access lists
C. encryption domains
D. QoS
E. hashing method
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. You are implementing DMVPN Phase 3 in an existing network that uses DMVPN Phase1. You
configure NHRP, but the creation of the spoke-to-spoke tunnel fails. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Remove the multicast flag from the NHRP configuration.
B. Configure the tunnel of the hub by using point-to-point tunnel mode.
C. Configure the tunnel of the spoke by using mGRE tunnel mode.
D. Remove NHRP redirects from the hub configuration.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.patrickdenis.biz/blog/dmvpn-phase-1-2-and-3/

QUESTION 7
Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. IKEv2
D. ISAKMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the Exhibit. Which statement is accurate based on this configuration?

Pass4itsure 300-209 exams questions-q8

A. Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect.
B. Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2.
C. Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2.
D. Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A customer requires site-to-site VPNs to connect to third party business partners and has purchased two ASAs. The
customer requests an active/active configuration. Winch mode is needed to support and active/active solution?
A. single context
B. NAT context
C. PAT context
D. multiple context
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer wants to ensure that Diffie-Helman keys are re-generated upon a pahse-2 rekey. What option can be
configured to allow this?
A. Aggressive mode
B. Dead-peer detection
C. Main mode
D. Perfect-forward secrecy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which cryptographic method provides passphrase protection while importing or exporting keys?
A. AES
B. RSA
C. Serpent
D. Blowfish
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_pki/configuration/xe-3s/sec-pki-xe-3s-book/secdeploy-rsa-pki.pdf

QUESTION 13
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

If you want comprehensive and concise information about Cisco 300-209 Exam then your exam preparation should be started with these Authentic Cisco 300-209 Exam Dumps PDF. These reference questions answers are designed under the surveillance of Professionals and Experts. You can rely on them without any hesitation. More you would read these 300-209 dumps, more things you would know.please click: https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html.

How To Pass Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Certification Exam

CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135

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“Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)”: https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html (Q&As: 395). Free Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam practice test. Improve your skills and exam experience!

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Valid information provided by Cisco officials

300-135 TSHOOT – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/tshoot2.html

The latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Drag the GRE tunnel state from the left onto its corresponding scenario on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You examine the port statistics on a Cisco Catalyst switch and notice an excessive number of frames are being
dropped. Which of the following are possible reasons for the drops?
A. Unknown destination MAC address
B. Bad cabling
C. MAC forwarding table is full
D. Port configured for half duplex
E. Port configured for full duplex
F. Network congestion
Correct Answer: BF

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q3

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D
On R4, in the redistribution of EIGRP routing protocol, we need to change name of routemap to resolve the issue. It
references route-map OSPF_to_EIGRP but the actual route map is called OSPF->EIGRP. Since Client 1 is able to ping
the near-end interface of the router R4 but not the far-end interface, we can be reasonably certain that the fault
condition is with R4.

 

QUESTION 6
The implementation group has been using the test bed to do an IPv6 \\’proof-ofconcept1.
After several changes to the network addressing and routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that
the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2 (2026::102:1).
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: G
As explained earlier, the problem is with route redistribution on R4 of not redistributing RIP routes into OSPF for IPV6.

 

QUESTION 7
Configuration on R1 interface Serial0/0/1 description Link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat
outside ip access-group edge_security in ! ip access-list extended edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any deny 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any permit ip
host 209.65.200.241 any !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. add permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command to R1s ACL
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor
209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Output showing line VTY 0 4 config with an access list applied `ip access-class 1 in\\’
ip access list permit tcp any any eq 22 ip access list permit tcp any any telnet Cisco engineer is trying to setup secure
access to the router but why is SSH failing?
A. access-list needs to be applied with access-group command.
B. access-list only allows telnet access.
C. They\\’re needed to be transport input ssh on line vty 0 4
D. https://www.CertBus.com/300-125.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the ping response to a transmitted echo that needed to be fragmented and fragmentation was not allowed?
A. U
B. M
C. …
D. D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q10

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?
A. Configure static ARP in gateway router
B. Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router
C. Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration enter standby 10 preempt command.
B. Under the track 1 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command and enter the threshold
metric up 61 down 62 command.
C. Under the track 10 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command and enter the threshold
metric up 1 down 2 command.
D. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration delete the standby 10 track1 decrement 60 command and enter the standby
10 track 10 decrement 60 command.
Correct Answer: D
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The reason that router DSW1 will not become the active router is because it is configured to track the 10.1.21.128
255.255.0.0 network. It should have been configured to track the 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 network. This can be fixed
by
replacing the Change “standby 10 track 1 decrement 60” command with the “standby 10 track 10 decrement 60”
command.

 

QUESTION 12
If you want to use GRE with IPSec which is compatible with NAT traversal?
A. MD5 mode
B. SHA mode
C. IPsec tunnel mode
D. tunnel transport
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
—Output from config–service password-encryption ! line console password a123124 ! line vty 0 4 password asdfasf12
login transport input telnet ! What will happen if client A will telnet to this device.
A. Telnet will be successful
B. Telnet will fail because of missing user database
C. Telnet will fail because of missing aaa new model
D. Telnet will fail because only ssh is allowed
Correct Answer: A

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300-465 CLDDES – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clddes.html

  • translate requirements into cloud/automation process designs
  • design Private Cloud infrastructures
  • design Public Cloud infrastructures
  • design Cloud Security Policies
  • design Virtualization and Virtual Network Services

Latest effective Cisco 300-465 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A cloudadministratoris migrating a VM to the Intercloud FabricCloud.What optionliststhesteps that are needed to achievethis task?

pass4itsure 300-465 exam question q1

A. B. C. D.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three network services are offered by Microsoft Azure? (Choose three.)
A. elastic load balancing
B. traffic manager route incoming traffic for high performance and availability
C. intrusion detection systems, load balancing, firewalls
D. virtual private networks to be deployed and managed
E. virtual network provision private networks, optionally connect to on-premises datacenters
F. express route dedicated private network fiber connections to Azure
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 3
From which module must a manager or supervior review and authorize the service when end user submits an order in
the prime service catalog?
A. Order Management
B. Service e Request
C. Requisition
D. Administration
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A cloud administrator is considering storage for a deployment. The admin needs a solution that is durable and reliable
and fits the need for storing media, web assets, and backups. Which solution meets this need the best?
A. Cloud file storage
B. Cloud block storage
C. Cloud hybrid storage
D. Cloud NFS storage
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two options are Cisco Intercloud Fabric Deployment Models? (Choose two.)
A. enterprise managed
B. enterprise DMZ controlled
C. small office home office deployment
D. service provider managed hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which describes the best option when beginning a cloud design?
A. Outline even/ challenge in the data center in a business justification document.
B. Switch to a single hypervisor provider.
C. Leverage automation as a foundational concept.
D. Hire enough resources to maintain a 5-to-1 relationship with managed devices.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which option does not relate to the zero trust model?
A. secure access
B. orchestration
C. intrusion protection system
D. segmentation
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
An administrator is designing a cloud environment lo support multi-tenancy. The customs will share infrastructure,
applications. Which two designconcernsshould have priority? (Choose two)
A. core layer segmentation
B. to ensure that proper upgrade protocols are planned out
C. VM segmentation and database segmentation
D. to ensure that proper security and isolation protects tenants from the risks they pose to one another
E. data center infrastructure segmentation
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS Director administrator has added vCenter to the virtual data center. Which two vCenter functionalities are
not available in Cisco Director? (Choose two.)
A. create a VM
B. assign a VM
C. delete a VM
D. use Stack View
E. clone a VM
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 10
Which three components are involved the design of Cisco Secure cloud extension? (Choose three.)
A. Intercloud Fabric Extender
B. Amazon Hybrid Cloud
C. third party firewall to secure the connection
D. Amazon Web Services
E. TLS tunnel, to extend the VLAN
F. Intercloud Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 11
A system administrator must use Cisco UCS Director to migrate several virtual machines from one host to another
without disrupting the workload In whichtwo ways can the administrator accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. migrate VM policy
B. migrate VM wizard
C. hot VW migration wizard
D. hot VM workflow task
E. migrate VM workflow task
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 12
Which two storage connectivity types are most widely used for VMFS datastores? (Choose two
A. iSCSI
B. FC/FCoE
C. NFS
D. CIFS
E. SCSI
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which two options need to be considered to build a context aware infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. VIAN segmentation (or every application type.
B. The design of data formats and network protocols for the platform.
C. Creating zero connectivity environments for sensitive data.
D. The building of basic services in the infrastructure, including automatic path creation and proximity-based discovery.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 14
Which two options are Cisco Intercloud Fabric use cases? (Choose two.)
A. development and testing
B. capacity reduction
C. legal compliance
D. secure administrative access
E. shadow IT control
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 15
Which option describes the foundation of automated cloud design?
A. Start small, automate infrastructure, and define success criteria.
B. Automate interaction with all application services before moving on to infrastructure.
C. Contact your local cloud provider
D. Not all cloud designs are subject to automation
Correct Answer: A

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 Technology:

Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies.
Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed.
The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link.
The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami.
The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers.
The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users.
You configure the following:
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com.
In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following:
A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com
Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com
You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements:
Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located.
Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365.
The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.
Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses.
A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records.
Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You have a database availability group (DAG) that contains four Exchange servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. The file share witness is on a server named Share1.
The organization has two Send connectors. The Send connectors are configured as shown in the following table.
Users report that email sent to external recipients is not being received.
You discover that outbound email messages are queued on Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages queued on Server3 and Server4 are delivered to the Internet as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Modify the cost of External2.
B. Disable External1.
C. Modify the list of source bridgehead servers of External2.
D. Modify the cost of External1.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
Microsoft Outlook is configured to connect to an FQDN of mail.adatum.com. Mail.adatum.com resolves to the IP address of a Layer 7 hardware load balancer. The hardware load balancer is configured to send traffic to EX2 and EX3.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server named EX4 and an Exchange Server 2013 Client Access server named EX5.
You plan to migrate all mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can access their mailbox on EX1 or EX4 during the migration.
What should you do?
A. Create a Client Access server array that contains EX1 and EX5.
B. Modify the autodiscover.contoso.com resource record to point to EX5.
C. Modify the properties of the hardware load balancer to point to EX5.
D. Create a DNS record named legacy.contoso.com in the internal DNS zone.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle. You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3.
You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails.
Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution. Choose two.)
A. Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B. Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C. Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D. Move the file share witness to Server1.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. The mode of the DLP policy is set to Enforce.
You need to ensure that email messages containing social security numbers from the United States are blocked.
Which two possible rules achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. U.S. State Breach: Allow Override
B. U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – low count
C. U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – high count
D. U.S. State Breach: Scan text limit exceeded
E. U.S. State Breach: Attachment not supported
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
B. New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
C. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Your company has three offices. Each office has 1,000 users and is configured as an Active Directory site. Each site connects directly to the Internet.
The network contains six servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
An administrator performs a datacenter switchover by changing the DNS record for webl.adatum.com to point to the IP address of web2.adatum.com.
Users from Main1 report that when they connect to Outlook Web App, they receive a certificate warning message. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users do not receive a certificate warning message when a datacenter
switchover is performed.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Three host headers for the Default Web Site on each Client Access server
B. One certificate that contains all of the external names as subject alternative names
C. Three certificates that each contains one of the external names
D. An external URL for each Client Access server set to $null
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 22
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All users are issued certificates from an internal certification authority (CA).
Users who have a laptop can access their mailbox from the Internet by using Outlook Anywhere.
When the users attempt to view or to create digitally signed email messages while they are connected to the Internet, the users receive a warning message.
When the users use their laptop on the internal network, the users do not receive a warning message.
You need to ensure that the users can send and receive digitally signed email messages without receiving a warning message.
What should you do?
A. Publish the root certificate of the CA to a server that is accessible from the Internet.
B. Publish the certificate revocation list (CRL) to a server that is accessible from the Internet.
C. Install a trusted root CA certificate on all Client Access servers.
D. Install a trusted root CA certificate on all of the laptops.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
B. Merge PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
C. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
D. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
You have an Exchange Server organization. The organization contains servers that have either Exchange Server 2010 or Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You hire a new helpdesk technician named helpdesk1. Helpdesk1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group.
You discover that helpdesk1 created nine new mailbox-enabled users by using the New-Mailbox command.
You need to identify which management role provides helpdesk1 with the permissions to create new mailbox-enabled users.
Which cmdlets should you run?
A. Get-ManagementRoleEntry and Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
B. Get-RolegroupMember and Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
C. Get-ManagementRoleEntry and Get-RoleGroup
D. Get-Rolegroup and Get-RoleGroupMember
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 28
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. From the Exchange Admin Center, create a new certificate request.
B. On each Client Access server, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
C. On all of the Client Access servers, delete the default self-signed certificates.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, run the Remove-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
A user named User1 has a mailbox that is enabled for Unified Messaging (UM). User1 has nine call answering rules.
When User1 attempts to create a new call answering rule, the user receives an error message.
You need to identify what prevents User1 from creating a call answering rule.
What should you identify?
A. The mailbox of User1 has the CallAnsweringRulesEnabled parameter set to $false
B. The UM mailbox policy of User1 has the AllowCallAnsweringRules parameter set to $false.
C. User1 exceeds the Inbox rules storage quota.
D. User1 has the maximum number of call answering rules allowed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
You have an Exchange Server 2007 organization.
You deploy a new Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You plan to move all of the mailboxes to the new organization by performing a cross-forest mailbox move.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the following requirements:
Users must be able to reply successfully to email messages they received before their mailbox moved.
Users must be able to send email messages to internal mailboxes by using the entries in the nickname cache that existed in Microsoft Outlook before their mailbox moved.
What should you recommend doing before moving the mailboxes?
A. Create a sharing policy and a remote domain.
B. Create an organization relationship and a remote domain.
C. For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an x500 proxy address.
D. For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an SMTP proxy address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?
A. Merge PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D. New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true based on the output of “show service- profile circuit server 1/3”. (Choose three.)
300-180 dumps
A. vnic eth0 is pinned to module 0 interface 1.
B. vnic eth1 is pinned to module 1 interface 6.
C. vnic eth0 is pinned to port channel 1.
D. vnic eth1 is pinned to port channel 6.
E. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth0.
F. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth1.
300-180 exam Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring
6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug
6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug
6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring
6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
C. 6100-A# scope system
6100-A /system # scope monitoring
6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
D. 6100-A# scope cores
6100-A /cores # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
E. 6100-A# scope logging
6100-A /logging # scope monitoring
6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
Which interface is configured as a management interface for the Cisco UCS chassis?
A. eth0
B. vlan4047
C. eth1
D. eth2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two options are Cisco UCS default user roles? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Server Equipment Administrator
C. FCoE Administrator
D. Server Resource Administrator
E. LAN Administrator
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
You have blade servers that run VMware ESXi. Which two tasks do you perform to ensure that all of the components in the Cisco UCS environment use jumbo frames? (Choose two.)
A. Use a QoS policy for the jumbo frames.
B. Configure the MTU on the vSwitch.
C. Configure the fabric interconnect to support 9500-byte frames.
D. Configure the MTU on the vNIC.
E. Configure a QoS policy on the vSwitch.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink
UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer
What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port
300-180 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
On a Cisco UCS B-Series data center environment; how many default roles are there when utilizing RBAC for security restriction?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
300-180 dumps
A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
300-180 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true about using the debug command to resolve an HSRP issue on the Cisco Nexus platform? (Choose three.)
A. The debug command should be allowed to run for at least an hour.
B. The administrator can log debug messages to a special log file to avoid flooding the console.
C. Open a second Telnet or SSH session before you enter any debug commands so that if the debug session overwhelms the console, you can stop the
message output.
D. Use the debug command only under the guidance of Cisco Technical Support.
E. Use the Ethanalyzer remote interface command to capture packets.
F. The debug peer-gateway command should be used to isolate the problem.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 34
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which two describe the correct requirements for non-disruptive IOS ISSU on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. updated kickstart and system images must be staged in bootflash on single-supervisor switches
B. updated kickstart and system images must be staged in bootflash on dual-supervisor switches
C. low version skew
D. dual supervisors
E. clock synchronization
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 36
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
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Customer encounters the problem as shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
300-180 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
While the Nexus 7010 switches are configured with vPC, the Nexus 5000 switch connections to each Nexus 7010 are configured as regular port-channels. Which
statement best describes the problem affecting the port channel on N5K1?
A. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
B. N5K1 must also be configured with vPC.
C. load-balancing is not configured correctly on N5K1.
D. The remote ends of the port-channel on N5K1 cannot use the same interface.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
Which two commands are missing to enable OTV between N7K-A and N7K-B? (Choose two.)
A. otv site-vlan on both N7Ks
B. create vlan 5-10
C. enable virtual port-channel on vlan 5-10
D. enable eigrp on both N7Ks
E. enable hsrp feature
300-180 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

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QUESTION 1
How should the architect implement high availability (HA) with 12 NetScaler appliances?
A. In each datacenter, deploy an HA pair in the internal network for load balancing and an HA pair in the DMZ for Gateway traffic.
B. In each datacenter, deploy an HA pair in the internal network for Gateway traffic and an HA pair in the DMZ for load balancing.
C. Create three NetScaler virtual servers configured with the subnets of the three sites, and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server.
D. Create six NetScaler virtual servers in HA pairs configured with the subnets of the three sites, and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server.
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Profile streaming\’ when configuring Citrix Profile management to allow standardization of profiles benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It allows for faster logons.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
D. It improves application performance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two issues could CGE\’s current home directory storage strategy cause? (Choose two.)
A. Slow logons
B. Unverified data backups
C. High IOPS on the storage appliance
D. High CPU usage on the XenApp servers
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Why is a design with 12 NetScaler appliances, in which each datacenter deploys three NetScaler virtual servers configured with the subnets of the three sites and binded to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using StoreFront server, the best remote access design?
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in each of the three configured sites?
A. One server in each datacenter
B. Two servers in each datacenter
C. Three servers in each datacenter
D. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. What should the architect recommend?
A. Configure a separate local vDisk store on each Provisioning Services server and a daily robocopy script across the two stores.
B. Configure a separate local vDisk store on each Provisioning Services server and configure the two stores in a DFS-R group.
C. Configure a vDisk store on a CIFS share on a NAS for each Provisioning Services server.
D. Create the Provisioning Services vDisk store on a configured, single DFS namespace.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which two FlexCast models should a Citrix Architect consider for the Research end-user group? (Choose two.)
A. Remote PC Access
B. Hosted Shared
C. Streamed VHD
D. On-Demand Apps
E. Hosted VDI: Static Persistent
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy. It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability. Why is deploying MGMT in a Remote PC environment on Windows 8 with Provisioning Services the best solution?
A. It offers a faster change process.
B. End users are already comfortable working in a shared environment.
C. It prevents XenApp server crashes.
D. It enables faster rollbacks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Why is deploying two NetScaler appliances – one in the primary and one in the secondary datacenter, configured with failover sites within the NetScaler Gateway the best design solution?
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. Why is using a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts, using a shared virtual disk storage repository for XenMotion, high
availability, and the replication and backup of meta information the best design for the resource pools?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a disaster recovery process that leverages a backup solution.
B. It ensures simple setup with redundancy.
C. It bases resource pools on roles, and facilitates the movement of workloads from one resource pool to another in the event of maintenance or disaster recovery.
D. It ensures the separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, which optimizes performance and high availability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in the configured site?
A. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
B. Three servers in each datacenter
C. Two servers in each datacenter
D. One server in each datacenter
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy. It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability. How should the architect deploy MGMT in a Hosted VDI environment?
A. As Hosted VDI Static Persistent
B. As Hosted VDI Static
C. As Hosted VDI Random
D. Hosted VDI with SCCM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. Why does using Windows Deployment Services and deploying a standard base image to virtual desktops help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rapid rollback.
B. It automates deployment of current and legacy OS versions.
C. It leverages Hyper-V snapshots.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
How should the architect configure high availability (HA) on a XenServer host to support an iSCSI SAN?
A. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and create a NIC bond.
B. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and enable Asymmetric Logical Unit Assignment (ALUA).
C. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a different Layer 3 network, run the HBA configuration utility, and verify that both can access the iSCSI storage array.
D. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a separate Layer 3 network, and enable XenServer Multipathing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Hypervisor templates and snapshots to facilitate image management and rollback?
A. By using the Hypervisor API to deploy desktops from templates
B. By using PowerShell to script desktop deployment from templates
C. By using Workflow Studio to deploy desktops from templates
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by Client Name, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Why would the architect choose active-active bonding when configuring network interfaces for storage networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
1Y0-401 vce Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches. The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is always a physical port
Reference:

QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can not mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets. passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

QUESTION 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.

QUESTION 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52 What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN. This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through 5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface: Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9

QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 11
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 12
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP allows switches to advertise VLAN information between other members of the same VTP domain. VTP allows a consistent view of the switched network across all switches. There are several reasons why the VLAN information can fail to be exchanged. Verify these items if switches that run VTP fail to exchange
VLAN information:
VTP information only passes through a trunk port. Make sure that all ports that interconnect switches are configured as trunks and are actually trunking. Make sure that if EtherChannels are created between two switches, only Layer 2 EtherChannels propagate VLAN information. Make sure that the VLANs are active in all the devices. One of the switches must be the VTP server in a VTP domain. All VLAN changes must be done on this switch in order to have them propagated to the VTP clients. ·The VTP domain name must match and it is case sensitive. CISCO and cisco are two different domain names.
Make sure that no password is set between the server and client. If any password is set, make sure that the password is the same on both sides.

QUESTION 13
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP version 1 and VTP version 2 do not propagate configuration information for extended- range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). You must configure extended-range VLANs manually on each network device. VTP version 3 supports extended-range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). If you convert from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, the VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.
Reference:

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 700-802 Dumps Blog Series 1-23 

1.Which three name services use hierarchical name space? (Choose three.)
A.NIS
B.NFS
C.DNS
D.UNS
E.NIS+
F.LDAP
700-802 exam Correct:C E F

2.You administer a growing network of systems, using the NIS naming service, with numerous slave servers. As the number of users and systems grows, performance is going down, updates are overloading the network, and the volume of data held on each server is becoming too large, causing difficulties in making backups quickly. You need to increase network security. What are two solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)
A.configure your network to use NIS
B.configure your network to use FTP
C.configure your network to use NFS
D.configure your network to use NIS+
E.configure your network to use DNS
F.configure your network to use LDAP
Correct:D F

3.You have a network with 115 Solaris systems using no naming service. There are no security concerns. Many users have accounts on several different systems. You want your users to be able to login on any system and have them use just one password. You also want to keep the network administration as simple as possible. Which action allows you to meet these requirements?
A.configure your network to use NIS
B.configure your network to use NFS
C.configure your network to use NIS+
D.configure your network to use DNS
E.configure your network to use LDAP
700-802 dumps Correct:A

4.Which two statements about the RBAC security mechanism are true? (Choose two.)
A.The roleadd command uses the same default shell to useradd.
B.The roleadd command uses very similar syntax to the useradd command.
C.The -P option, used to associate an account with a profile, may only be used with roleadd.
D.Using usermod -R rolename username updates the user_attr file to associate a user with a role.
Correct:B D

5.Which shell is the default when adding an account using roleadd?
A./usr/bin/ksh
B./usr/bin/sh
C./usr/bin/pfsh
D./usr/bin/pfjsh
E./usr/bin/prsh
F./usr/bin/prksh
700-802 pdf Correct:C

6.You have created an RBAC role which is allowed to perform privileged tasks. You want to allow certain existing users to access the role. Which three actions should you take to ensure that users can access the role? (Choose three.)
A.You give the users the password to the role.
B.You give the users a profile type shell at login.
C.You connect the user to the role through the usermod command.
D.You inform the users that they can access the role through use of the su command.
E.You inform the users that they can access the role through use of a direct login, Telnet, or rlogin.
F.You give the users execute permissions to the privileged commands associated with the role through use of the ACL mechanism.
Correct:A C D

7.In the execution attributes database, what is NOT a valid value for the attr (which is the last field)?
A.euid
B.uid
C.egid
D.suid
700-802 vce Correct:D

8.Which command lists the registered RPC services?
A.ipcs
B.lsrpc
C.rpccall
D.psrinfo
E.rpcinfo
F.rpclist
Correct:E

9.Which statement about an Ethernet address is true?
A.It is unique for every system.
B.It has an entry in the /etc/inet/hosts file.
C.It is a 32-bit address divided into four 8-bit fields.
D.It is a number assigned by the system administrator.
700-802 exam Correct:A

10.Which layer of the seven layer OSI/ISO model resolves packet delivery decisions based on the Ethernet address?
A.session layer
B.network layer
C.physical layer
D.data link layer
Correct:D

11. Given:
The employees table has an index created as follows: create index emp_index1on employees(last_name, first_name desc) Which of the following queries would not require a sort? (Choose 2)
A. select * from employees order by last_name, first_name
B. select * from employees order by last_name ASC, first_name DESC
C. select * from employees order by first_name DESC, last_name ASC
D. select * from employees order by last_name DESC, first_name ASC
700-802 dumps Answer: BD

12. Given: number of worker processes = 10, max parallel degree = 5, max scan parallel degree = 4. Table A has the following characteristics: Datarows locking, No indexes, a column named price, 5000 rows, 4 partitions. A user executes the following query: Select * from A where price < $10. Which of the following conditions would cause the query to run in serial instead of parallel? (Choose 2)
A. there are not enough worker processes available at run time
B. the database option select into/bulkcopy/pllsort is not set to true
C. the partition skew is 2.3
D. the database is set for single user mode
E. max parallel degree does not match the number of partitions
Answer: AC

13. Which of the following statements describes readpast locking? (Choose 2)
A. It can be specified at the session, transaction, and table level.
B. It allows insert, update, and delete commands to read past any incompatible lock.
C. It allows readers to not block writers.
D. It allows select and readtext queries to silently skip all rows or pages locked with incompatible locks.
700-802 pdf Answer: BD

14. The ACME company has an 8 CPU SMP system running Adaptive Server Enterprise (ASE). The ASE server has been allocated 1.5 GB of 2.0 GB of memory available. The ASE server has been allocated 2 engines. There are 1,000 concurrent users of the ASE server. The sp_sysmon report shows the spinlock contention rate averages 70-80% for the default data cache. Which steps can be taken to correct this performance problem?
A. Add a 16KB buffer pool to the server.
B. Increase the size of the tempdb database.
C. Add two engines to the ASE server.
D. Add named caches to and bind the appropriate objects to the named caches.
E. Add more locks to the server.
Answer: D

15. What is the purpose of dsync flag?
A. to synchronize primary and mirrored devices
B. to synchronize primary and secondary databases
C. to control whether writes to operating system files are buffered or not
D. to control Backup Server’s access to a dump device
700-802 vce Answer: C

16. All of the following execution class associations exist in the ASE when user FRED, running application ctisql, logs in. Which one will be applied to FREDs session?
A. sp_bindexeclass ctisql, AP, NULL, EC1
B. sp_bindexeclass ctisql, AP, FRED, EC2
C. sp_bindexeclass FRED, LG, NULL, EC1
D. sp_bindexeclass FRED, LG, ctisql, EC2
E. It depends on the order of the creation of the bindings
Answer: B

17. The reorg command may be used to: (Choose 2)
A. Compact a table that uses datarows locking.
B. Reclaim unused space in a table that uses allpages locking.
C. Reclaim unused space in an index that uses datapages locking.
D. Rebuild a table that uses allpages locking.
700-802 exam Answer: AC

18. What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts? (Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F. increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking period
Answer: ACD

19. The “abstract plan language” is:
A. A language used to tell the optimizer how to process a query.
B. The internal command language used by sp_sysmon.
C. A new type of command language for creating very complicated queries.
D. The language used internally by the server for planning the most efficient use of memory.
700-802 dumps Answer: A

20. Which two actions can cause locking on system tables in tempdb? (Choose 2.)
A. create table in tempdb
B. select into a #temptable
C. worktables created for reformatting
D. selecting from a large table in tempdb
Answer: AB

21. When a row is deleted on a table with datarows locking:
A. Rows on the page are moved up so the empty space is at the end of the page.
B. The space occupied by the deleted row is not reclaimed immediately.
C. The space occupied by the deleted row is filled with zeros.
D. The last row on the page is moved into the space created by the deleted row.
700-802 pdf Answer: B

22. What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts? (Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F. increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking period
Answer: ACD

23. The following query is executed frequently against the database. select a.au_fname, a.au_lname,
ad.street, ad.city, ad.state, ad.zip
from authors a, author_address ad where a.au_id = ad.au_id What database denormalization technique
could be used to improve the performance of this query?
A. Move the au_lname and au_fname columns to the author_address table.
B. Collapse the author_address and authors table into a single table.
C. Move the city, state, and zip columns to the authors table.
D. Create a view called mailing_address to eliminate the two table join from the query.
E. Add the redundant column au_id to the author_address table.
700-802 vce Answer: B
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700-802 dumps

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